1. The customer’s Centera is using CentraStar 3.0. A third-party vendor implemented an application and requested that a virtual pool and profile be created on the Centera. The application fails in its attempt to write to the Centera. What is a possible problem?
A. CE+ is enabled so no data can be written to the Centera
B. PEA file was never provided to the application
C. Replication wasn’t turned on
D. Storage pool creation not completed
Answer: B
2. What is the maximum number of nodes in a Gen 4 Centera Cube?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C
3. Clips need to be migrated from the default pool to a virtual pool. An access profile has already been created.
Sequence the following steps to migrate clips:
1) Grant the profile access to the pool
2) Create application virtual pool
3) Start migrating poolmappings
4) Set the home pool for the access profile
5) Create poolmapping
A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
B. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
D. 2, 1, 5, 4, 3
Answer: A
4. What is an “unbundled” cluster?
A. Flexible solution where the customer chooses any configuration of hardware or software to deploy
B. Hardware only solution where the software is provided by the customer
C. Software only solution where the hardware is provided by the customer
D. Solution where the customer provides the rack in which the cluster is installed
Answer: D
5. What does SDK Failover enable with the default setting?
A. If a C-Clip cannot be found on the primary cluster, then the request goes to the secondary cluster
B. If the communication is interrupted to the primary Centera, all data is rewritten to the secondary Centera
C. If the pool has reached its defined quota then data is written automatically to the default pool
D. In case of a disk failure, data is written automatically to a node connected to the other power rail
Answer: A
6. How do you launch the CUA Monitor?
A. Connect Monitor and keyboard directly to the CUA node and launch web services
B. Start a http session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 16000
C. Start a https session to the IP-address of the CUA using port 7227
D. Starting a SSH session to the IP address of the CUA and use the function “M” in the menu
Answer: C
7. Click the exhibit button.
Which button, in the diagram, is used to start the CLI from within Centera viewer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A
8. What are the available Centera replication topologies in addition to Uni-Directional and Bi-Directional?
A. Chain and Inward Star
B. Multipoint to Point and Chain
C. Point to Multipoint and Link
D. Ring and Star
Answer: A
9. A new customer has been testing their Centera in Governance mode. They have specified retention periods ranging from 0 days to 7 years. They would now like to erase the cluster and put it into production. How can the customer remove the test data from the cluster?
A. Customer can issue a reset cluster command from the CLI
B. Customer can switch the cluster off for 24 hours to delete all data
C. Customer can use the privileged delete command to remove the data
D. Can not be done, data remains on the cluster
Answer: C
10. With which enterprise backup solutions does CASbar work?
A. NDMP compatible systems
B. NDMP systems with DMA capabilities
C. Systems capable of mounting a UNIX file system
D. Systems capable of mounting a windows file system
Answer: D
11. How can an application get authenticated by the Centera?
A. Application sends the PAI-file encrypted to Centera as part of the connection process
B. Connect string contains IP-Address of one or more access nodes, and a valid pair of name and secret
C. Send IP address of all access nodes and correct subnet mask as part of the connect string
D. System administrator has to set an environment variable, which points to the location of the PAI-module
Answer: B
12. By default, how many different file sizes does Centera Verify use to perform tests?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C
13. What is the primary benefit of the GM naming scheme?
A. Combination of the MD5 plus SHA-256 hash algorithms
B. Containerizes small files for increased performance
C. Faster for both ingest and cluster operations
D. Single Instance Storage
Answer: C
14. Which management role is required for the profile to be used by Centera Console?
A. Accesscontrol role
B. Audit role
C. Monitor role
D. Replication role
Answer: C
15. What is the function of garbage collection?
A. Delete all CDFs with elapsed retention periods
B. Delete all reflections which do not contain pointers to blobs
C. Delete blobs that have no associated CDF
D. Delete virtual pools which do not contain data
Answer: C
16. Which item is responsible for granting capabilities?
A. Access profile
B. ACL’s
C. CentraStar Mode (Basic, Governance or CE+)
D. Cluster profile
Answer: B
17. Which tool is used to create domains for use with Centera Console?
A. Centera CLI
B. Centera Console CLI
C. Centera Viewer
D. PDM
Answer: A
18. Which naming scheme facilitates single instance storage?
A. CPM
B. GM
C. M++
D. SSPF
Answer: C
19. What remains after an object is deleted from Centera by an application?
A. Copy of the CDF
B. Copy of the object
C. Nothing will remain
D. Reflection
Answer: D
20. What is an example of the command to turn CPP on when the license has been entered?
A. set content protection parity on
B. set protection CPP
C. set protection mode CPP
D. set protection write parity 250k
Answer: D
21. What is the best description for fixed content?
A. Content that is included in the companys back-up policy
B. Final copy of data
C. Fixed Database structures
D. Transactional data required for corporate compliance
Answer: B
22. What is the function of CASbar?
A. Monitor Centera health and status
B. Provide a connector for enterprise backup software
C. Provide a mountpoint interface to the Centera
D. Verify read/write/delete functionality of Centera
Answer: B
23. A Centera cluster is configured to use CPM. A customer creates a new Virtual Pool. What is the object count of the Virtual Pool after a 250 kB document is written to it?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 9
Answer: C
24. How is the blob protected using CPM?
A. Fragmented in a 4+1 configuration
B. Mirrored across six nodes
C. Mirrored on one odd node and one even node
D. Segmented across six nodes with a seventh for parity
Answer: C
25. Using Enhanced Availability, how often does the database on the standby CUA get updated?
A. Active CUA sends all database updates immediately to the Standby CUA
B. Every 5 minutes or 500 writes, whichever occurs first
C. User must define the frequency depending on the desired RPO
D. Whenever the active CUA writes a backup of its database to Centera
Answer: B
26. What is the first step performed by the Centera API before the file is sent to the Centera?
A. Cache the file for later use
B. Calculate the content address
C. Encrypt the CDF and blob
D. Prepare the CDF
Answer: D
27. What is one method of getting files to a Centera?
A. A network file share from the Centera itself
B. CUA providing a share to the Centera
C. FTP a file from a host directly to the Centera
D. Presenting LUNs from the Centera to a host
Answer: B
28. Which protocol is used by the Centera SDK to interact with the Centera cluster?
A. Fibre Channel
B. SCSI
C. TCP/IP
D. WEP
Answer: C
29. A customer wants to start a backup set on January 31, 2006 at 5am. What is the correct syntax to specify this parameter in the configuration file?
A. BEGINTIME=’2006-01-31 05:00′
B. FIRSTCLIPDATE=’2006-01-31 05:00′
C. STARTTIMESTAMP=’2006-01-31 05:00′
D. BEGINTIMEPERIOD=’2006-01-31 05:00′
Answer: C
30. What is the maximum number of Centera clusters that can be monitored in a domain?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Unlimited
Answer: B
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